Female Gynecologic History and Physical (H&P) Practice Test

These questions are part of the practice quiz. Start practicing

• In pregnancy, which statement about vulvovaginal infections is accurate?
• Which of the following is NOT a listed risk factor prompting DEXA screening in 50-64?
• True or false: you should only do an internal GYN exam on a child if you are qualified (not PAs) and if there is evidence of bleeding, discharge, trauma or abuse.
• Which of the following is a possible etiology of milky nipple discharge?
• Which statement about normal menstrual flow is true?
• Oligomenorrhea is defined as what pattern?
• Which of the following is a classic feature of PCOS?
• Which patterns of menstrual irregularity in adolescents prompt urgent evaluation?
• Which components are essential to document in the initial female gynecologic history and physical (H&P)?
• In gynecology, how should care for minors be handled regarding consent and confidentiality?
• Which finding supports menopausal status in a patient with possible menopause?
• Which three nodes should you assess if your initial nodal exam suggests malignancy?
• What does the term mastalgia refer to?
• If a patient has T=2, P=1, A=0, L=3, what is parity?
• When is an inverted nipple considered abnormal?
• When should cervical cancer screening be performed during a gynecologic visit?
• What guidelines should women who have had a hysterectomy but the cervix remains follow?
• Which of the following is listed as one of the five illnesses to document in the family history when taking an obstetric history?
• What is the current evidence regarding breast self-examination effectiveness?
• How often should women at average risk undergo a screening mammogram?
• Which statement best defines grand multipara?
• Which imaging modalities have no role in screening for breast cancer in average-risk women?
• Which imaging modality is used for screening high-risk patients?
• Compared with older women, mammography is generally less sensitive in younger women.
• In obstetric history, what does the notation G5P1215 indicate about term, preterm, abortions, and living children?
• If a patient requests to reschedule due to discomfort, what is the appropriate response?
• Which statement best defines nulligravida?
• In a gynecologic assessment, when is a formal pelvic examination indicated?
• How often is hrHPV testing alone recommended for women aged 30-65?
• HIV testing is recommended at least once between ages 13-64.
• Which statement best defines nulliparous?
• Which test measures bone density for osteoporosis screening?
• Spontaneous unilateral bloody nipple discharge until proven otherwise is most likely due to?
• Females exposed to what chemical have a higher risk of developing cervicovaginal cancer?
• What is the clinical significance of cervical motion tenderness?
• Which of the following factors increases a woman's risk of developing HPV-related cervical cancer?
• What is the cervical cancer screening recommendation for women aged 65+ who have a 9-10 year history of negative screening results?
• What does gravid mean in obstetric history?
• What benign breast tumor is common in puberty to young adults and is well-defined, mobile, and tender?
• Which region is associated with the tail of Spence?
• What factors are essential when evaluating contraception history?
• What is a supernumerary nipple?
• How should cervical cancer screening be adjusted if a patient is pregnant or immunosuppressed?
• Which history element is a risk factor for pelvic organ prolapse or urinary incontinence?
• Which term describes a woman who has given birth to exactly one child?
• Which description describes a typical vaginal discharge in Trichomonas infection?
• Is clear, serous, green, non-bloody nipple discharge that is multi-ductal concerning?
• What elements are typically documented in a comprehensive gynecologic H&P?
• Which statement best describes a benign lesion in puberty?
• Which breast mass is most common from ages 30-50 and tends to regress after menopause, often round to firm, mobile and tender?
• Which social history factors are important to document in the gynecologic evaluation?
• What is menarche?
• Which of the following factors increases risk of non-HPV related cervical cancer?
• During breast inspection, which position involves leaning forward to examine the breasts?
• When doing a Pap smear where is the sample obtained from?
• In the gynecologic exam, when is a bimanual pelvic exam performed?
• Spontaneous unilateral bloody discharge is most concerning for which condition until proven otherwise?
• Menopause is defined as cessation of menses for more than how long?
• Which factor is associated with hereditary breast and ovarian cancer syndrome?
• What key elements should be covered when taking a sexual history?
• What approach helps differentiate gynecologic from non-gynecologic pelvic pain?
• During breast examination, what is specifically looked for when the arms are raised over the head?
• If self-exams are recommended, when should they start?
• What is the goal of osteoporosis screening?
• What pregnancy considerations apply to common vulvovaginal infections such as yeast and BV?
• Why is asking about hereditary cancer syndromes relevant in gynecology visits?
• Which features in the history suggest abnormal uterine bleeding (AUB)?
• Which urinary symptoms should be queried during a gynecologic history and physical?
• What are the 3 purposes of doing a rectovaginal exam?
• Why is pregnancy status checked when evaluating abnormal vaginal bleeding?
• Which symptom is most associated with endometriosis?
• Which description accurately reflects candidiasis discharge?
• Which factor indicates being a known carrier of a pathogenic mutation for HBOC in self or relative?
• Gardasil protects against which HPV types?
• How does family history influence assessment of breast/gynecologic cancer risk?
• In the long-hand obstetric history notation, what does P stand for?
• Which data are typically included in the medical history portion of the gynecologic H&P?
• What historical features differentiate primary from secondary dysmenorrhea?
• True or false: most fractures occur in people who do NOT have osteoporosis.
• If a woman has not started having mammograms by age 40, when is it recommended that they begin?
• What imaging modality is the recommended screening for breast cancer?
• Which obstetric risk factors should be captured in the H&P?
• What is the screening recommendation for women aged 65+ who do NOT have a 9-10 year history of negative results?
• A uni-ductal, clear discharge is concerning because it may indicate which condition?
• What is a key goal of evaluating hereditary cancer risk in gynecologic practice?
• Which breast mass is most common in patients 50 and older and is firm/hard, not clearly delineated, irregular, and non-tender?
• In PID, which finding is a red flag requiring urgent evaluation?
• Which finding best indicates cervicitis?
• What are the typical steps of a pelvic examination, in order?
• If a woman is no longer having menstrual cycles, does she still need a breast exam?
• Which of the following is a risk factor for non-HPV related cervical cancer?
• Which of the following describes the inspect positions used when examining the breasts?
• Which elements are typically included in a gynecologic H&P regarding examination and screening history?
• Which of the following statements about palpation during breast exam is true?
• What is the correct guideline statement for cervical cancer screening in women aged 30-65 with cytology and HPV?
• Cotesting for women aged 30-65 is recommended at what interval?
• Which option is NOT among the three primary purposes of performing a rectovaginal exam?
• Rectovaginal examination is particularly useful for evaluating pelvic pathology and which ligaments?
• What additional screening method can be considered for women aged 25-29?
• In the notation P1215, what does the last digit represent?
• What is the cervical cancer screening interval for women aged 21-29?
• Menorrhagia is best described as which of the following?
• Do women who have had a total hysterectomy (including removal of the cervix) for indications unrelated to cervical cancer need to undergo further screening for cervical cancer?
• When obtaining an obstetric history, is it important to ask about details of each pregnancy, childbirth, and postpartum period?
• Twin births count as a single gravid experience.
• Why is a pregnancy test essential in evaluating amenorrhea or irregular menses?
• Which area should not be forgotten when palpating the breast?
• Which of the following is NOT an etiology of milky nipple discharge?
• Average-risk status requires not being exposed to which compound in utero?
• Perimenopause is described as which of the following?
• What elements should be explained and explicit consent obtained before performing a pelvic exam?
• When documenting cervical os status, what information should be included?
• How should you address patient discomfort during a pelvic exam and what strategies can improve tolerance?
• Which component is essential during a gynecologic pelvic examination?
• How do social determinants of health affect access to comprehensive gynecologic care?
• Which characteristic best helps distinguish a cyst from cancer on exam?
• Which elements constitute a comprehensive breast history relevant to gynecologic care?
• Which option is NOT listed as a major risk factor for developing breast cancer?
• Which option is a major risk factor for developing breast cancer?
• After hysterectomy, which statement best reflects cervical cancer screening guidelines?
• In the long-hand obstetric history notation, what does L stand for?
• Polymenorrhea is defined as what interval between menses?
• In the notation P1215, what does the second digit represent?
• Which statement best describes average risk for developing cervical cancer?
• Which statement best defines primigravida?
• Which term describes a woman who has never given birth or whose pregnancy did not progress beyond 20 weeks?
• Which statement best defines multigravida?
• Gardasil is contraindicated in patients with which allergy?
• How does uterine size and position on examination help narrow the differential diagnosis?
• False positive mammograms are more common in younger women than older women.
• Pelvic organ prolapse is often associated with which of the following?
• Which elements should be included in the gynecologic social history?
• Under what condition can cervical cancer screening be stopped?
• Is clear, serous, green, non-bloody nipple discharge that is uni-ductal concerning?
• Which of the following is a risk factor for HPV-related cervical cancer?
• In obstetric history, what do Gravida, Term, Preterm, Abortions, and Living represent?
• What is the cervical cancer screening guideline for women under 21?
• At what age may annual mammography screening be offered?
• What is a typical next step after removing a cervical polyp in the office?
• Rectocele is defined as which of the following?
• What questions help determine menopausal status and related symptoms?
• Which statement best defines multiparous?
• What should be included in postpartum contraception planning?
• Which discharge description is most typical of bacterial vaginosis?
• What privacy measures are essential during a gynecologic examination?
• Which osteoporosis screening should all women 65+ have?
• A fixed retroverted uterus on examination most often suggests which conditions?
• What age range has a strong consensus to recommend mammograms?
• Which of the following best defines parity in obstetric history?
• Which of the following is NOT a cervical cancer screening option for patients aged 30-65?
• Which age group is fibroadenoma most commonly seen?
• In the long-hand obstetric history, L stands for which concept?
• Breastfeeding for at least how long is listed as a risk-reduction strategy?
• Which risk factors are commonly discussed in counseling for endometrial cancer?
• When is a chaperone appropriate during a pelvic exam?
• Which statement about pelvic examinations is true?
• In the long-hand obstetric history notation, what does A stand for?
• Metrorrhagia refers to which bleeding pattern?
• Ultrasound is mainly used for diagnostic follow-up rather than routine screening.
• Which of the following are risk factors that would prompt a DEXA scan for someone aged 50-64?
• Multiple births are a single parous experience.
• Which finding after examining the midaxillary and supraclavicular nodes suggests malignancy?
• In a Pap smear, the sample is collected from which zone?
• A normal menstrual cycle is defined by which frequency and duration?
• How would a visible cervical polyp present and what is the typical management?
• Postmenopausal bleeding is urgent because it can signal endometrial cancer or other pathology. Which initial workup is typical?
• Screening for cervical cancer and STIs in women who have sex with women should be conducted according to guidelines for females, based on open discussion of sexual and behavioral risk factors.
• True or false: Women who have none of the major risk factors are considered average risk and should follow typical screening guidelines for mammograms.
• Post-coital bleeding is best defined as bleeding that occurs after intercourse.
• Which is listed as a major risk factor for breast cancer?
• Which exam is described by inserting two fingers into the vagina and using the other hand on the abdomen to assess the uterus?
• What is a cystocele?
• True or false: women with an increased risk of developing cervical cancer should undergo more frequent screening.
• Which practice regarding hormone therapy is recommended to reduce breast cancer risk?
• Which factor should prompt checking CA-125 when evaluating a pelvic mass?
• Which family history factors increase risk for gynecologic cancers?
• Which historical symptoms are concerning for ovarian cancer and warrant further evaluation?
• Syphilis testing is recommended in which population?
• Which statement about cervical cancer screening guidelines by age is true?
• Which HPV type is NOT included in Gardasil's nine-valent vaccine coverage?
• Which of the following is identified as a risk-reduction strategy for breast cancer?
• Chlamydia screening risk factors include which of the following?
• Adnexal tenderness or masses on exam most often indicate pathology of which structures, and what are common etiologies?
• Which statement best defines primipara?
• In the long-hand obstetric history notation, what does T stand for?
• What is rectocele?
• Consistent condom use reduces STI risk; what counseling should accompany it?
• What is the Gardasil dosing schedule?
• If a patient has G5P1215, how many total pregnancies has she had?
• The inframammary ridge is a normal finding.
• Clinical breast examination is offered to women aged 25-39 years every 1-3 years, and starting at age 40 it may be offered annually.
• Which speculum exam findings are most consistent with infection or cervical pathology?
• Which postpartum H&P elements are relevant for the gynecologic examination after delivery?
• At what age can women who are at average risk for breast cancer stop undergoing screening mammograms?
• In documenting cervical os status, which statement correctly describes typical states and their implications?
• How is primary amenorrhea distinguished from secondary amenorrhea in a gynecologic history?
• When a pelvic mass is palpated, which steps help distinguish ovarian cysts from other masses?
• Which of the following is a recommended technique for breast palpation?
• Which axillary lymph nodes should be palpated during a breast exam?
• What is the typical HPV vaccination schedule and purpose?
• If peau d'orange is observed, should cancer be suspected?
• What are the 2 primary types of cervical cancer?
• Which STIs are routinely screened for in a gynecologic H&P based on risk?
• Cystocele is defined as which of the following?
• Which clavicular lymph nodes are important to palpate during a breast exam?
• Chlamydia and gonorrhea screening is recommended for which group?
• Which racial group has a higher mortality rate from breast cancer?
• What is the clinical significance of postcoital bleeding and what historical details help evaluate it?
• Which medication class is known to cause nipple discharge?
• What is a bimanual exam?